Stealing 100% of the product of someone's labor is slavery
If stealing 100% of the product of someone's labor is slavery,
at what percentage is not slavery?
Under certain definitions I suppose it would qualify, but frankly I find those definitions diluted beyond practical use. Slavery is most useful as a term when it signifies a distinct state not just of financial deprivation but of belonging to someone else as their property with the rights which follow from being property rather than a free person (i.e. few to none, really). Joe, this sounds like a tax the rich question. How much is too much. What percentage should the rich pay. IMO there should be a consumption tax on everything you buy except food, healthcare and education. Everyone pays this tax at the same rate on any purchase. This should replace the income tax. How about a flat tax? That would make the calculations easier than they are now and, in effect, it covers consumption before the consumption happens. This would give the government the money upfront, and the seller wouldn't have to be the government's proxy tax collector. It does not remove the burden from the employer though and individuals would still need to capture and report other sources of income. 1
point
|